How does the browser respond when the iframe source is set to javascript?

Have you ever wondered about the source of an iframe when it looks like this:

javascript:'';

Take a look at this example:

<iframe id="SpControlFrame1" name="SpControlFrame1" src="javascript:'';" path_src="index.php?cmd=YYY" ></iframe>

What exactly is happening here? What instructions is the browser receiving with src="javascript:'';" ?

And don't forget about "path_src" - what role does it play in all of this?

Thank you, Chris

Answer №1

When the empty string literal is executed, the browser will be instructed to display nothing but an empty string.

To see this in action, try entering

javascript:'http://stackoverflow.com';
into the address bar of a regular window or tab. You'll notice that a blank page appears with the text "", but you won't actually be directed to that website.

This is why bookmarklets often use either void() or an anonymous function that doesn't return anything, preventing the browser from trying to show the result when executing the bookmarklet. For instance:

javascript:void(window.open("dom_spy.html"))

Or:

javascript:(function () { window.open("dom_spy.html"); })()

If the code being used does return something (such as creating a new window), the browser will end up displaying it:

javascript:window.open("dom_spy.html");

In Firefox, the above code will show:

[object Window]

Answer №2

From what I understand, the src attribute corresponds to the iframe elements' location.href. Therefore, setting the src to javascript:''; seems illogical and the browser will react in one of two ways:

  • It will ignore it because it is not a valid URI leading to any visible content
  • It will execute the javascript code resulting in no output

Ultimately, this action achieves very little in terms of functionality. Are you working with inherited code or are you attempting some sort of clever manipulation with the iframe?

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